Questions
for ATPL Exams
021
Airframes, Systems & Powerplant
For
the correct contents of these files no guarantee can be given.
1.       When leaning the mixture for the
most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause…
a)* high CHT and EGT
b) high MAP
c) low CHT and EGT
d) high
RPM
2.      
In addition to
energy storage, the accumulator in a hydraulic system is used…
a) for
storage of fluid
b) for storage of pressure
c) as
pressure relief valve
d)* for
dampening excessive pressure surges
3.      
With power
changes on an engine with constant speed propeller, wrong combination of MAP and RPM causes excessive pressures in the
cylinders. This is caused by…
a)* high MAP low RPM
b) low MAP high RPM
c) high
MAP high RPM
d) low
MAP low RPM
4.      
In a modern airliner, the maximum
differential pressure is usually…
a) 3.5
psi
b)* 9 psi
c) 13.5
psi
d) 15.5
psi
5.      
On a propeller driven aircraft, the
torque is measured…
a) on
the camshaft
b)* in
the gear box between the engine and the propeller
c) In
the auxiliary gear box
6.      
An unloaded lead-acid battery can be
detected through the following property…
a) the electrolyte tends to “boil”
b)* the
voltage decreases under load
c) the
voltage increases
d) the
current increases due to a voltage decrease
7.      
The VOR has a wavelength which is…
a) centimetric
b) decimetric
c)* metric
d) hectometric
8.        
What
is important for internal cooling of a reciprocating engine, regardless of RPM
at a given PWR setting?
a) rich fuel/air mixture
b) lean
fuel/air mixture
c) a
good working thermostat
d)* a
circulation of lubricating oil
9.      
A diluter
demand oxygen regulator…
a)* gives
airflow when inhaling
b) gives airflow only above
FL100
c) mixes
air and oxygen in the passenger’s mask
d) is
to use only when there is smoke in the cabin
10.    
The warning
system indicating a too high cabin altitude starts at…
a) 8’000 ft
b)* 10’000
ft
c) 12’000
ft
d) 14’000
ft
11.    
The color of
synthetic oil is…
a) pink
b) blue
c)* purple
d) red
12.    
Wing anti-ice
system on modern aircraft is…
a) electrical
b) chemical
c)* thermal
(hot air)
d) mechanical
13.    
What type are
passenger emergency oxygen masks?
a) continuous
flow, can be used with smoke
b)* continuous flow, cannot be
used with smoke
c) on
demand, can be used with smoke
d) on
demand, cannot be used with smoke
14.    
Load sharing
between 2 A/C generators in parallel…
a)* both
real and reactive loads must be matched
b) only real loads must be
matched
c) only
reactive loads must be matched
d) no
influence
15.    
Where are
Krueger flaps located?
i) leading
edge
ii) trailing edge
iii) wingroot
iv) wingtip
a)        
i only
b)        
ii
only
c)        
i
& iv
d)* i
& iii
16.  
Vapour
lock in a fuel system occurs.
a) due to water in the lines,
freezing at low temperatures
b) due to burnt gases in the
exhaust
c) as a phenomenon of enriching
after incorrect application of the
carburator heat
d)* due to heat and subsequent
forming of vapour plugs in the fuel lines
17.    
A
capacitance fuel gauge system measures…
a)* dielectric change fuel/air
b) resistance
variation of fuel
c) density
change of fuel
18.    
Rich
mixture during climb causes…
a) higher
torque
b) higher efficiency
c)* lower
CHT
d) slight
loss of power
19.    
Oxygen
for the flight crew is stored…
a) liquid
b)* gaseous
c) chemical
d) chemical/gaseous
20.    
The use of a barometric
adjusted fuel controler is to…
a) increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude
is increasing
b) decrease the fuel-to-air ratio when
altitude is increasing
c) maintain the fuel-to-air ratio
constant whatever the altitude is
d)* maintain a constant weight
fuel-to-air ratio when altitude is increasing
21.    
In
an airline transport aircraft, the emergency exits must be designed so that…
a) 50% of the pax can evacuate through 50% of
the exits in 20 seconds
b) all pax can evacuate in 2 minutes
through 50% of the exits
c)* all pax and crew can evacuate
through 50% of the exits in 90 seconds
22.    
The supply on
demand diluter oxygen systems are.
a)* normally set to 100% oxygen
b) increasing oxygen when altitude is
increasing
c) decreasing oxygen when altitude is
increasing
23.    
On a
quickdonning mask the oxygen diluter in normal will affect the air/oxygen ratio
in the following.
a)* increase
air/oxygen ratio when ALT increases
b) decrease air/oxygen ratio when ALT
increases
c) 100% oxygen
24.¬†¬†¬†¬† C/B’s are used…
a) only
in a DC circuit
b) only in a DC circuit
c)* in AC and DC circuits
d) are never necessary
25.    
A
fusible plug in a tire is provided…
a) to
release overpressure
b)* to release pressure caused by excess
of heat
c) to release overpressure from the discbrakes
d) to release overheat from the
discbrakes
26.     The air conditioning system takes
bleed air from the…
a) first
fan blade stage
b) low pressure compressor
c)* high pressure compressor
d) low pressure compressor first and if
necessary from the high pressure compressor
27.    
When TAS
increases the blade angle of attack of a constant speed propeller.
a) increases
b) decreases
c)* remains
constant
d)        
first
decreases then increases
28.    
The
air-cycle cooling system produces cold air by…
a) routing conditional air
through the cooling fan
b) passing heated air through a
compressor
c) passing
air through cooling coils that contain a refrigerant
d)* extracting
heat energy across an expansion turbine
29.    
What is the
function of a static inverter?
a) change
polarisation
b) change alternate current into direct
current
c) for static discharge
d)* change direct current into
alternate current
30.    
You add current
on a conductor which is placed in a magnetic field. What happens?
a) nothing until the conductor is moved
b)* there will be a force excerted on
the conductor
31.    
What
happens in a continuous fire loop detector if temperature increases?
a) pressure increases
b) resistance inverses
c)* resistance decreases
d) resistance increases
32.     What is the friction coefficient,
when an aircraft is hydroplaning?
a)* 0
b) 0,1
c) 0,5
d) 1
33.¬†¬†¬†¬† The igniters should be on…
1) throughout the whole operation
2) during acceleration
3) at ground start
4) at inflight relight
5) during turbulences
6) during precipitation and icing
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2,3,4
d)* 3,4,5,6
34.    
What
is the use of the mixture control?
a) decrease the fuel in the fuel/air mixture
due to increase of air density
b)* increase the fuel in the fuel/air
mixture due to increase of air density
c) decrease of fuel flow
d) increase of fuel flow
35.    
What
is the relationship between the octane grade and the compression ratio?
a)* the higher the octane number, the higher the
compression ratio
b) the higher the octane number, the
lower the compression ratio
c) the lower the octane number, the higher
the compression ratio
d) the compression ratio is independent
of the octane number
36.    
Cabin altitude
increases while the aircraft is flying level. The differential pressure…
a)* decreases
b) increases
c) remains
the same
d) may
exceed maximum differential pressure
37.    
On
piston engines, carburator icing…
a) only occurs at OAT’s below
+10 ¬įC
b)* may occur above +10 ¬įC
c) only occurs at OAT’s below
freezing level of water
d) only occurs at OAT’s below
freezing level of fuel
38.    
When combustion gases are directed
through the turbine of a turbocharger, their…
a)        
temperature increases
b)* velocity decreases
c)        
pressure increases
d) pressure decreases
39.    
A continous element of a fire detector loop is
heated:
1)        
resistance increases
2)        
resistance decreases
3)        
leaking voltage increases
4)        
leaking voltage decreases
a)        
1,3
b)* 2,3
c) 2,4
d)       1,4
40.    
Required number of megaphones for commercial
airplanes with 61 passenger seats:
a)        
none
b) 1 if at least 35 passengers on board
c)* 1
d) 2
41.    
Required number of axes or crowbars for a commercial
airplane over 5700 kg with more than 9 and less than 200 seats:
a)* one axe or crowbar in the cockpit
b)        
one axe in the cockpit and one crowbar in the
cabin
42.    
Why is the hydraulic fluid/oil in front of the
pump pressurized?
a)* to avoid cavitation in the pump
b) to avoid vapour lock in the pump
43.    
When starting to get bleed air from a compressor
stage, with constant fuel flow, the turbine temperature…
a)* increases
b) decreases
c)        
remains constant
d)        
depends on the RPM and number of compressor stage
44.  
What
type are fuel booster pumps?
a)* centrifugal low pressure
pumps
b)        
centrifugal
high pressure pumps
c)        
variable
blade type low pressure pumps
d)        
variable
blade type high pressure pumps
45.    
Which of the following may cause detonation?
a)        
delaying the ignition time
b)* excessive lean fuel/air mixture
c) increase compression ratio
d) the use of a high octane rating as compared to a low octane
rating
46.    
The cabin pressure regulator regulates:
1)        
max differential pressure
2)        
max cabin altitude
3)        
max cabin altitude rate-of-change
4)        
balance between cabin and ambient pressure
5)        
always the same differential pressure
a)* 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 only
c) 2, 5 only
d) 3, 4 and 5
47.    
Anti-ice equipment on transport aircraft:
1)        
engine air inlet and rod
2)        
windshield
3)        
radom
4)        
pitot tube
5)        
wings leading edge
6)        
cabin windows
7)        
wing trailing edge and flaps
a)* 1, 2, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
d) 3, 4, 7
48.    
Angle of a 3-phase generator?
a)* 120 ¬į
49.    
Shortly after engine start with no other
electrical systems on, the battery-load-ammeter shows high:
a)        
the generator failed, cut down the engine!
b)        
the battery failed, stop the engine!
c)* this is normal and can be
disregarded, as long as the reading doesn’t stay that high for a longer period
d) can be totally disregarded
50.    
In case of a main hydraulic system failure, the RAT
provides hydraulic power to…
a)* flight controls to steer the aircraft
b) flaps extension
c)        
gear extension
d)        
nose wheel steering on ground
51.    
A storage device in a computer is:
a)        
screen
b)        
keyboard
c)* harddisk
52.    
In a compensated capacitance fuel measuring system
the mass of fuel is 800 lbs. Due to temperature increase the volume increases
by 5%. The indicated mass will be…
a)        
+ 5%
b)        
– 5%
c)* constant
d) + 10%
53.    
Concerning quick donning oxygen masks, radio
telephony can be maintained as follows:
a)        
receive only
b)        
transmit only
c)* receive and transmit
54.    
What is the ‘cabin ROD’?
a)* an increase in cabin pressure
b) a decrease in cabin pressure
c) it’s the same as the aircraft ROD
d) it’s not possible at a constant altitude
55.    
What is an EPROM?
1)        
a read-only memory
2)        
a writeable memory
3)        
it erases the memory if the power is disconnected
4)        
it keeps the memory if the power is disconnected
What
combination describes it best:
a)        
1+3
b)* 1+4
c)        
2+3
d)        
2+4
56.    
A relay is…
a)        
an electrical security device
b)        
an electrical power conversion
c)* an electro-magnetic operated switch
d) only for AC
57.    
Where does most of the power brake system pressure
come from?
a)        
pedals
b)* main hydraulic system
c)        
engine driven hydraulic pump
d)        
actuator
58.    
Effect of the carburator heater:
a)        
air density increase, mixture becomes leaner
b)        
air volume increase, mixture becomes leaner
c)* air density decrease, mixture becomes richer
d) air volume decrease, mixture becomes richer
59.    
Ionization detectors can detect.
a)* fire (smoke)
b) heat
c)        
fire and heat
60.    
Braking action “poor”:
a)* 0.25
b) 0.27
c) 0.30
d) 0.42
61.    
What
is the wavelength of VHF?
a)        
cm
b)        
dm
c)* m
c)        
hectometer
62.    
How
can you recognize that a battery is low?
a)        
boiling
of fluid
b)        
volt
increase
c)* volt decrease
c)        
current
increase
63.    
Air
cycle machine. The turbine.
a)* drives the compressor
b)        
increases
the pressure
64.    
How
do you fight a magnesium fire?
a)* with sand
b) with water
c)        
with
halon
d)        
with
CO2
65.    
What
is the wavelength of the NDB with 300kHz?
a)      
1
m
b)      
10
m
c)      
100
m
d)* 1’000 m
66.    
A
turbocharger is driven by.
a)        
electric
motor
b)        
hydraulic
c)* exhaust gases
67.    
Hottest
temperature in engine is found in the.
a)* combustion chamber
b) exhaust
68.    
The
function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to.
a)        
ensure
the input signal is AC only
b)        
ensure
the input signal is DC only
c)        
ensure
the output signal of the same state as the input signal
d)* invert the input signal so
that the output is always of the opposite state
69.    
Which
of these signals at least are inputs, which the stall warning is composed of?
a)        
angle
of attack, flaps, spoiler
b)* angle of attack, flaps, slats
c) angle of attack, flaps, EPR,
N1
d) angle of attack, flaps, EPR
70.    
How
is a firewire alert system tested?
a)* the wire and the warning are
tested
b)        
only
the warning function is tested
c)        
output
of the wiring and total heat
d)        
wire
is totally heated
71.    
What
is a continuous-loop-detector?
a)        
smoke
detector
b)* fire detector
72.    
When
does a pilot usually use the autofeather system?
a)* during T/O
b)        
during
landing
c)        
during
cruise
d)        
during
T/O and landing
73.    
A
“tyre-burst” is prevented by.
a)        
a
water cooling system
b)* a hollow screw in the wheel,
… (thermal fuse)
c) a thermal relief valve
d) the anti-skid system that
prevents excessive breaking, resulting in an overheat of the brakes
74.    
In
a single-spool gas turbine, the turbine RPM compared to the compressor RPM is.
a)        
greater
b)* equal
c) less
d) independent of the compressor
RPM
75.    
In
an A/C circuit with a series of capacitors, when the frequency of the A/C is
increased, the current in the circuit will.
a)* increase
b)        
decrease
c)        
remain
the same
76.    
What
cannot be influenced by an airconditioning system?
a)        
pressure
b)        
humidity
c)        
temperature
d)* purity
77.    
An
accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is prepressurized with 1’200 psi. If an
electrically hydraulic pump is switched on, producing a pressure of 3’000 psi,
the pressure gauge of the gas containing compartment shows a pressure of
a)        
1’200
psi
b)        
1’800
psi
c)* 3’000 psi
d) 4’200 psi
78.    
The
frequency of an A/C generator depends on.
a)        
the
individual number of poles and the rotation speed of the moving parts
b)* the number of pole pairs and
the rotation speed of the moving parts
c) the rotation frequency of the
moving parts
79.    
Overheat
detectors are located in.
a)* the wheel well
b)        
fuel
tanks
c)        
cabin
d)        
tyre
80.    
In
an aircraft with 180 passenger seats (30 rows, 2 blocks with 3 seats each
block) the number of oxygen masks is at least.
a)* 110% of passenger seats
b) for each passenger seat plus
one mask in each row
c)        
for
each passenger seat plus one mask for each seat block
d)        
150%
of passenger seats
81.    
There
are 60 persons (passengers and crew) on board a turbo-prop aircraft. The
aircraft is cruising at a speed of 240 KT and is about to fly over water, so
that, at the maximum time to reach an emergency alternate aerodrome is 01:45
hrs. The emergency equipment has to comprise.
a)        
60
life jackets
b)        
60
life jackets plus 2 slides/rafts for 30 persons each
c)* 60 life jackets plus 3
slides/rafts for 30 persons each
d) 60 life jackets plus 2
slides/rafts for 20 persons each and one for 30 persons
82.    
Which
capacity of the sliderafts are required for flights over water?
a) for each person on board plus
10 %
b)* all persons on board,
considering 1 raft of the highest capacity is unusable
83.    
Why
are temperature limitations given for turbo-jet engines?
a)        
to
prevent damage to the combustion chamber
b)        
to
prevent damage to the nozzle guide vanes (prevent excessive creeping)
c)* to prevent damage to the
turbine blades
84.    
What
happens, if the waste gate is seized in a descent?
a)        
the
turbine blades desintegrate
b)        
the
compressor blades desintegrate
c)* the maximum MAP will be
exceeded
d) the turbine shaft will shear
85.    
What
type of smoke detectors are used in modern large transport aircraft?
a)        
electrical
type
b)* optical or ionization type
c) machanical type
d) chemical type
86.    
How
is emergency gear extension provided in a heavy transport aircraft?
a)        
pneumatically
b)        
hydraulically
c)* mechanically
d) electrically and mechanically
87.    
If
you use two 12V batteries with 40 Ah each in series, the total capacity will
be.
a) 12V, 40 Ah
b)* 24V, 40 Ah
c) 12V, 80 Ah
d) 24V, 80 Ah
88.    
How
is the fire alert for engine fire provided?
a)* fire warning for each engine
plus one common bell
b) fire warning for each engine
plus one bell for each engine
c)        
one
fire warning for both engines plus one bell for each engine
d)        
one
fire warning for both engines plus one common bell
89.    
How
are the engine fire extinguishers discharged?
a) automatically
b)* by the pilot
c) automatically after a delay
(if the pilot didn ¬īt react)
91. Above which flight altitude
does at least one pilot have to wear an oxygen mask?
a)        
FL
250
b)        
FL
300
c)* FL 410
d) FL 490
90.    
What
kind of oxygen systems are normally found on large transport aircraft?
a)        
one
system for all persons on board
b)        
two
systems for all persons on board
c)* two independant systems, one
for the cockpit, one for the cabin
91.    
What
is necessary for paralleling independant operating GEN ¬īs?
a)        
the
phase relationship is of no importance
b)* the GEN ¬īs have to be
synchronized
c) the GEN ¬īs have to have a
constant phase difference of 120 ¬į
d) the GEN ¬īs have to have a
constant phase difference of 240 ¬į
92.    
In
a circuit with two resistors (R1, R2) in parallel, the
equal resistance (Req) in the circuit is.
a)        
Req
= R1 + R2
b)        
Req
= 1/ R1 + 1/ R2
c)* 1/ Req = 1/ R1+
1/ R2
d) 1/ Req = R1+
R2/ R1* R2
93.    
If
an electrical supply unit gives “open circuit”, .
a) due to the increas of
current, the CB popps
b)* the continuity is
interrupted, the services will stop operating
c) the load, shown on the
ammeter will rise significantly
94.    
In
a non stressed skin wing construction, which part takes the bending forces?
a)        
the
skin
b)        
the
ribs
c)* the spars
95.    
A
rich fuel/air mixture has a weight ratio of.
a)* 1/9th
b) 1/12th
c)        
1/15th
d)        
1/20th
96.    
What
happens if there exists an excessive rich mixture?
a)* black smoke
b) white smoke
c)        
CHT
rises
d)        
a
purple flame can be seen coming out of the exhaust pipe
97.    
What
increases the skip distance of HF transmission waves?
a)        
a
lower frequency and a lower ionospheric layer
b)        
a
lower frequency and a higher ionospheric layer
c)        
a
higher frequency and a lower ionospheric layer
d)* a higher frequency and a
higher ionospheric layer
98.    
The
efficiency of a constant speed propeller compared to a fixed-pitch-propeller
is.
a)        
always
better
b)* constant over a wide range of
operation
c) better over the whole range
of operation
d) better in cruise
99.    
With
a constant throttle and RPM lever setting in a climb,.
a)        
the
RPM will rise
b)        
the
MAP will rise
c)        
the
RPM will decrease
d)* the MAP will decrease
100. 
What
kind of basic logical element is shown here?
a)        
a NOR-gate
b)        
a
NAND-gate
c)* a NOT-gate or an inverter
d) a XOR-gate
101.  Which one is a peripheral output
device for a computer?
a) keyboard
b)* screen
c) disk drive
d) hard disk drive
102.  Which device is necessary to charge
a battery in an AC current electrical system?
a) an inverter
b)* a transformer-rectifier unit
103.  Why is there a fuel heating upstream
of the filter?
a) to prevent ice, forming due
water in the fuel
b)* to prevent the forming of ice
crystals in the filter due low temperature of the fuel
c) to improve the burning
process in the combustion chamber
104. 
What
happens in the diffuser of a centrifugal compressor?
a) pressure increase, increase
in velocity
b)* pressure increase, decrease
in velocity
c) pressure decrease, increase
in velocity
d) pressure decrease, decrease
in velocity
105. 
The
static pressure error at the static vent is most affected by.
a) temperature
b) ambient pressure
c)* mach number
106.  After a malfunction in an electrical
circuit a popped circuit breaker.
a)        
resets
automatically after the fault has been rectified
b)* can be reset manually after
the fault has been rectified
c)        
resets
itself after a certain time has passed
d)        
can
only be reset on ground
107. 
EPR
is the relation of.
a)        
turbine
inlet pressure to turbine discharge pressure
b)        
compressor
discharge pressure to turbine inlet pressure
c)        
compressor
inlet pressure to turbine discharge pressure
d)* turbine discharge pressure to
compressor inlet pressure
108.  In a fuel system, what is the
purpose of the fuel/oil cooler?
a)* jet oil cooling porvided by a
heat exchanger with fuel coming from the tanks
a)        
automatic
fuel heating to prevent the formation of ice crystals
b)        
automatic
fuel cooling
c)        
heating
of the oil
109. 
Compressor
baldes are loose on the ground but will not move anymore as the engine is
running. This is due to.
a)        
thermal
expansion
b)        
a
system which is blocking the blades
c)* aerodynamical and centrifugal
forces
110. 
What
is conditioned air?
a)* air which is treated for
pressure and temperature
b) air which is pressurized
c)        
air
which is filtered
111. 
Before
being indicated on the vibration indicator, vibrations are.
a)* filtered and amplified
b)        
only
filtered
c)        
directly
measured at the engine
d)        
are
only amplified
112. 
An
aeroplane with more than 61 seats is equipped with 3 fire extinguishers. How
many of them must be of the halon type?
a)        
0
b)* 1
c) 2
d) 3
113. 
What
is recorded on a cockpit voice recorder?
1)        
communication
exchanged by cabin crew
2)        
aural
tones and warnings in the cockpit
3)        
communications
between cockpit and ATC
4)        
only
captain’s communication
a)        
1
only is correct
b)        
1,
2 are correct
c)* 2, 3 are correct
d) 3, 4 are correct
114.  When does the FDR stop recording?
a)        
when
the aircraft touches down
b)        
when
the aircraft cleares the runway
c)* when the aircraft cannot move
any longer by its own power
115. 
Where
do you have a drift of 15 ¬į/h?
a)        
30 ¬įN
b)        
45 ¬įN
c)* at the North Pole
d) at the Equator
116.  On a stick shaker.
a)* the vibrations on the control
stick are producing simulated buffeting
b) the vibrations on the control
stick are natural buffeting prior to simulated buffeting
117. 
In
a lead acid battery, when one cell is inoperative.
a)        
you
have a loss of 1/12 of the voltage and capacity but the battery is still
working
b)        
you
have only a loss of 1/12 of the voltage but the battery is still working
c)* the battery is unservicable
118. 
How
is EGT measured?
a)        
by
the use of a bimetallic thermometer
b)* by the use of a thermocouple
119. 
Where
is the CHT measured?
a)        
at
the EGT
b)        
it
is an average of all cylinder temperatures
c)* at the hottest cylinder
120. 
What
is the rotating part in an AC generator?
a)* rotor
b) stator
c)        
slip
ring
d)        
oscillator
121. 
If
you use bleed air from the turbine, what will happen to the EPR and EGT?
a)* EPR is decreasing and EGT is
increasing
b)        
both
EPR and EGT are decreasing
c)        
both
EPR and EGT are increasing
d)        
EPR
is increasing and EGT is decreasing
122. 
What
is cabin altitude?
a)* cabin pressure expressed in
altitude
b) the altitude where the cabin
is actually located
123. 
Smoke
detectors are located in.
a)        
engine
nacelles
b)        
wheel
bay
c)* upper cargo compartments
124. 
What
is the purpose of a T-tail?
a)        
to
create a tail heavy tendency
b)* to prevent the tail being in
wing turbulence
c) to decrease fuel consumption
d) to have better high speed
characteristics
125. 
An
aircraft must be provided with a fuel dump system when.
a) the aircraft MTOM is more
than 5.7 t
b)        
the
aircraft has more than 150 pax
c)* MTOM is significanty
different form MLM
126. 
How
is the pressurization system controlled?
a)        
bleed
air valves
b)        
cabin
relief valves
c)* cabin outflow valves
d) cabin inlet valves
127. 
If
the outflow valves close in flight, the effect will be.
a)* pressure rise to maximum
differential pressure
b) damage the skin
c)        
cease
airflow automatically
128. 
Voltage
regulators. If the load is reduced, what does the current in the exciter field
do?
a)        
increase
b)* decrease
c) nothing
129. 
Fuel
flow across feed valves can be used when.
1)        
in
flight
2)        
on
ground
3)        
engine
supplied from any fuel tank
4)        
moving
fuel from tank to tank
a)        
1
only is correct
b)        
1,
3 are correct
c)        
1,
2, 4 are correct
d)* all of the avobe are correct
130. 
Which
fuel tanks are heated?
a)        
wing
b)        
centre
c)        
all
d)* none
131. 
When
are life jackets for adults inflated?
a)        
in
the plane
b)        
in
the water
c)* on leaving the plane
d) in the sea
132. 
Pneumatic
boot de-icing on wing leading edge.
a)* lasts longer than 10 sec
b) has 10 cycles a second
c)        
prevents
ice build up
133. 
What
pressure does the booster pump supply fuel at?
a)        
5
– 10 psi
b)* 20 – 50 psi
c) 300 – 500 psi
d)        
3’000
– 5’000 psi
134. 
How
can you realize that the aircraft is not bonded properly?
a)        
static
on VOR
b)* static on VHF radio
c) corrosion on fuselage
135. 
The
purpose of bonding is.
a)        
to
protect against lightning
b)        
to
prevent static
c)        
to
keep the aircraft at zero potential
d)* to keep all parts of the
aircraft at the same potential
136. 
Shimmy
is.
a)* sinusodial tracking on the
runway
b)        
when
the pilot looses control
c)        
a
torque link
d)        
an
accumulator in the steering contol
137. 
Feeding
fuel is pressurized to.
a)        
prevent
vapour lock
b)* prevent cavitation
c) keep a constant fuel flow in
negative g’s
d) prevent fuel icing
138. 
The
power output of a piston engine can be calculated by.
a)        
force
times distance
b)        
work
times velocity
c)* torque times RPM
d) pressure times arm
139.  Pulling the fire shut off handle
causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can
be said that the.
a)        
generator
breaker opens
b)(*) exciter control relay, the generator breaker
and the tie breaker opens
c) exciter control relay opens
d)(*) exciter
control relay and the generator breaker opens
140. 
A
fan stage of a ducted fan turbine engine is driven by.
a)        
high
pressure turbine
b)        
airflow
across it by the high pressure compressor
c)* the low pressure turbine
d) the high pressure compressor
through reduction gearing
141. 
The
propeller blade is twisted in order to.
a)* keep the local angle of
attack constant along the blade
b) allow higher mechanical
stress
c)        
avoid
appearance of sonic phenomena
d)        
decrease
blade tangetial speed from the blade root to the tip
142. 
What
is the voltage level of a fully charged lead-acid battery?
a)        
1.8
V
b)        
1.4
V
c)* 2.2 V
d) 1.2 V
143. 
A
magnetic circuit breaker.
a)* is a quick tripping response
protective system
b) permits overvoltage for a
short period of time
c)        
has
a slow response time
d)        
can
be reset without danger
144. 
The
purpose of ditching control is to.
a)* close the outflow valve
b) open the outflow valve
c) direct pressurized air to
floatation bags
d) achieve rapid
depressurization
145.  FL 390, maximum permissable
passengers by certification is 230. number of seats is 200, scheduled number of
passengers is 180. What is the minimum number of inhaler systems in the cabin?
a)        
180
b)        
198
c)* 220
d) 253
146. 
Protective
breathing equipment.
a)        
protects
crew against depressurization
b)* protects crew against fumes
and noxious gases
147. 
If
a CSD is disconnected during flight, it.
a)        
may
be reset using the reset mechanism
b)* may be reset on the ground
only after engine shutdown
148. 
Where
are the overheat detectors located in the hydraulic system?
a)        
in
the fuel/oil cooler
b)* in the pumps
c) in the reservoir
149. 
The
purpose of a trim tab device is to.
a)* reduce or cancel control
forces
b)        
trim
the aeroplane during normal flight
c)        
trim
the aeroplane during low speed flight
d)        
lower
manoeuvring control forces
150. 
Which
type of fire extinguisher should be used for inflammable gaseous materials like
propane?
a)        
CO2.
water
b)* BCF, CO2
c) dry powder, water
d) water only
151. 
The
fuel temperature at which the vapour ignites in contact with flame is the.
a)* flash point
b)        
self
ignition point
c)        
combustion
point
d)        
fire
point
152. 
The
conditions for the highest engine power are.
a)        
cold
air
b)        
humid
air
c)        
high
pressure
d)* cold, dry air and high
pressure
153. 
The
output of a generator is controlled by.
a) the reverse current
circuitbreaker
b)* varying the field strength
c) engine speed
d)        
varying
the length of wire in the armature
154. 
In
commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually.
a)        
electrical
b)* hydraulic
c) mechanical
d) pneumatic
155. 
The
most widely used frequency in aircraft is.
a)        
50
Hz
b)        
60
Hz
c)        
100
Hz
d)* 400 Hz
156. 
Fan
markers use.
a)        
centrimetric
wavelengths
b)        
millimetric
wavelengths
c)* metric wavelengths
d) hectometric or kilometric
wavelengths
157. 
For
a frequency of 121.95 MHz, what is the wavelength?
a)        
2.46
cm
b)        
2.46
mm
c)        
2.46
km
d)* 2.46 m
158. 
MLS
equipment uses.
a)* centimetric wavelengths
b) millimetric wavelengths
c) metric wavelengths
d)        
kilometric
wavelengths
159. 
ADF
uses.
a)* hectometric or kilometric
wavelengths
b) metric wavelengths
c)        
millimetric
wavelengths
d)        
centimetric
wavelengths
160. 
A
fuse is rated by.
a)        
its
resistance in ohms
b)* the current amperage it will
carry
c) the volts it will carry
d) the wattage it will pass
161. 
A
400 Hz asynchronous motor with 4 poles will rotate at.
a)        
1600
RPM
b)        
8000
RPM
c)* 12000 RPM
d) 24000 RPM
162. 
The
anti-skid system will.
a)* reduce brake pressure to
slower turning wheels
b) reduce brake pressure to
faster turning wheels
c)        
increase
brake pressure to slower turning wheels
d)        
increase
brake pressure to faster turning wheels
163. 
In
modern aircraft the hydraulic oil is.
a)        
mineral
b)        
vegetable
c)        
water
and glycol
d)* synthetic
164. 
Why
are low pressure fuel pumps submerged in fuel?
a)* to keep them cool
b)        
to
prime them
c)        
to
reduce the length of the fuel line
165. 
A
hydraulic system is a.
a)        
high
pressure, high flow system
b)* high pressure, low flow
system
c) low pressure, high flow
system
d)        
low
pressure , low flow system
166. 
What
component converts hydraulic pressure into linear motion?
a)        
accumulator
b)        
reservoir
c)        
pump
d)* jack/actuator
167. 
The
low pressure switch in a hydraulic system will indicate a warning if.
a)* the pressure coming out of
the pump is too low
b)        
the
accumulator is deflected
c)        
the
reservoir is too low
168. 
What
is the purpose of a crash axe?
a)        
to
assist in emergency exiting
b)* to pry a panel back to fight
a fire
c) to restrain a passenger who
is gettin violent
169. 
If
an artificial feel unit is fitted it would be connected.
a)        
in
series with the primary controls
b)* in parallel with the primary
controls
170. 
A
twin jet aircraft would normally be refuelled by which of the following
methods?
a)* pressure refuelling
b)        
suction
refuelling
c)        
open
line refuelling
d)        
overwing
refuelling
171. 
The
advantage of a float type gauging system is.
1)        
simple
2)        
compensates
for variations of SG
3)        
reads
fuel quantity by mass
4)        
compensates
for change of aircraft attitude
a)* 1 only
b)        
2,
3
c)        
3,
4
d)        
1,
3
172. 
If
a fuel tank having a capacitive contents gauging system is empty of fuel but
has a quantity of water in it.
a)        
the
gauge will show the mass equivalent to that which would have been indicated
with fuel in
b)* the gauge will show full
scale high
173. 
How
are escape slides inflated?
a)* self contained gas bottle
b)        
fed
from bleed air system
c)        
hand
pumped by cabin crew
174. 
The
flight deck warning on activation of a fire detection system is a.
a)* warning light and warning
bell
b)        
gear
warning
c)        
warning
bell
d)        
warning
light
175. 
Hydraulic
reservoirs are pressurized by.
a)* engine bleed air from turbine
engine
b)        
seperate
helium gas system
c)        
air
from the air conditioning system
d)        
in
flight only
176. 
A
shuttle valve will.
a)        
reduce
pump loading
b)* automatically switch to a
more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
177. 
If
the cabin pressure tends to decrease below ambient.
a)        
the
inward relief valve closes
b)        
the
outflow valve opens
c)* the inward relief valve opens
178. 
An
undercarriage leg is locked when.
a)* mechanically locked by an
over-centre mechanism
b) amber light is on
c)        
it
is down
d)        
actuating
cylinder is at the end of its travel
179. 
What
happens to an underinflated tyre on a dry runway?
a)* increased wear on the
shoulder
b)        
increased
wear on the crown
c)        
decreased
viscous aquaplaning speed
180. 
What
is the purpose of inboard ailerons?
a)* to reduce wing twist at high
speed
b)        
to
reduce wing bending at high speed
c)        
to
reduce wing twisting at low speed
d)        
to
reduce wing bending at low speed
181. 
Smoke
hoods protect.
a)* full face, continuous flow
b) mouth and nose, continuous
flow
c) full face, demand oxygen
d) mouth and nose, demand oxygen
182. 
In
a fan jet engine the bypass ratio is.
a)        
internal
mass airflow divided by external mass airflow
b)        
internal
mass airflow divided by mass fuel flow
c)* external mass airflow divided
by internal mass airflow
d) external mass airflow divided
by mass fuel flow
183. 
In
a very cold weather, the pilot notices a slightly higher than normal oil
pressure on start up.
a)        
this
is abnormal – engine must be shut down immediately
b)* this is normal – providing it
decreases after start up
c) it indicates that an oil
change is required
d) is abnormal – but does not
require the engine to be shut down
184. 
If
the temperature gauge of the CSD is in the red, what action would be required?
a)        
auto
disconnect
b)        
throttle
back and allow to cool down
c)        
disconnect
and when cooled reconnect
d)* manually disonnect and
reconnect on the ground
185. 
How
do you test a battery on an aircraft with a voltmeter?
a)* on load
b)        
off
load
186. 
Using
a medium frequency band, when is fading likely to occur? During.
a)        
daytime
and raining
b)        
nighttime
and raining
c)        
daytime
with sky and ground waves
d)* nighttime with sky and ground
waves
187. 
If
the load increases on a constant speed generator, what does the voltage
regulator do?
a)* increase the field excitation
b) decrease the field excitation
c) voltage regulator cannot
change the field excitation
188. 
The
frequency of an AC generatoris dependent upon.
a)        
poles
only
b)        
RPM
only
c)* poles and RPM
189. 
The
principle of operation of a firewire is.
a)        
positive
coefficient of resistance, negative coefficient of capacitance
b)* positive coefficient of
capacitance, negative coefficient of resistance
c) current leakage
190. 
A
magneto is switched off by.
a)(*) grounding
the primary circuit
b)        
open
the primary circuit
c)        
grounding
the secondary circuit
d)        
open
the secondary circuit
191. 
What
is the difference between: 1) fuse and 2) CB?
a)        
1
and 2 are resettable
b)* only 2 is resettable
c) the fuse is used for high
current application and the CB for low
d) the fuse fails at a higher
current
192. 
What
is the purpose of a differential cut-out?
a)* it ensures that the generator
voltages are nearly the same before they come on line
b)        
it
ensures that one generator comes on line before the other
193. 
What
type of motor is best used for starting engines?
a)        
shunt
wound motor
b)        
compound
wound motor
c)* series wound motor
d) induction motor
194. 
A
tubeless tyre has.
1)        
a
built in air tube
2)        
no
built in air tube
3)        
a
crossed ply construction
4)        
a
radial ply construction
a)(*) 2,
4 are correct
b) 1, 4 are correct
c)        
1,
3 are correct
d)(*) 2,
3 are correct
195. 
If
an A/C GEN is overexcited, the.
a)* tie braker popps
b) tie braker and the GEN braker
pop
c) tie braker and the GEN
exciter braker pop
d) GEN exciter and GEN braker
pop
196. 
The
voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in.
a)        
series
with the armature and in parallel with the shunt field
b)* parallel with the armature
and in parallel with the shunt field
c) series with the armature and
in series with the shunt field
d)        
parallel
with the armature and in in series eith the shunt field
197.  APU provides.
a) air conditioning and
electrical power on the ground
b)* air conditioning and
electrical power on the ground and hydraulic back up in flight
198.  On the ground, a system is preventing the
retraction of the landing gear. It is.
a)        
a bolt
b)        
an aural
warning
c)        
a system
connected on the WOW
d)* a latch on the gear lever
199.  If two AC generators are connected in parallel,
the reactive loads are balanced by.
a)        
the
frequency
b)        
the torque
of the CSD
c)* the energizing current
d) the voltage
200.  On a jet aircraft the fuel heaters are.
a)        
not
necessary at all
b)        
installed
in each tank
c)* located in the engines
d) installed only in the center
tank
201.  Measured output power units of a constant
frequency AC system are.
a)        
volt and
ampere
b)        
ampere and
kilowatt
c)* kVar and kVa
d) volt and kilowatt
202.  If the strength of a radio signal decreases
away from the transmitter, this effect is called.
a)* attenuation
b) ducting
203.  The components of the damping system on a large aircraft
undercarriage are.
a)        
nitrogen /
oxygen mix
b)* viscous liquid and nitrogen
c) helium
Fragments of
questions…
204.  You have to know the technical
principle of fire- and smoke detection systems!
205.  You have to know the relationship
between outside pressure and cabin pressure!
206.  You have to know all about oxygen
supply!
207.  You have to know all about
alternators and generators (important)!
208.  You have to know all about turbines!
209.  You have to know all about
propeller!
210.  Why is a flow duct of a axial flow
compressor tappered?
a)* to maintain a constant
airflow velocity along the compressor
211.  A fault protection fire loop.
a)* inhibits a fire warning if
the loop is inadvertently grounded
212. 
A
single loop detector (w/o fault protection) is inadvertently grounded. This.
a)* triggers a fire warning alert
213. 
What
is necessary for paralleling DC generators?
a) same voltage
b)* reactive and real loads need
to be matched
214. 
What
causes carburator icing?
a)* the evaporation of fuel and
temperature decrease by expansion of air in the venturi
215. 
During
normal climb after take off.
a)* the cabin pressure decreases
more slowly than the atmospheric pressure
216. 
Hot/direct
buses are.
a)* direct connected to the
battery
217. 
A
‘reverse thrust door’ warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates
when.
a)* the reverse doors are
unlocked
218. 
The
main function of a torsion link is to.
a)* avoid rotation of the
position rod to the oleo strut
219.  What is the purpose of the baffle check valves
in the fuel tanks?
a)* to prevent fuel movement to
the wing tip during manoeuvers
b) to damp out the movement of
the fuel in the tank
220. 
What
is a hung start?
a)* too less fuel is supported to
the engine, N2 remains at approximately 35%
221. 
What
is the definition of self-sustaining speed?
a)* RPM at which the starter unit
can be switched off
222. 
The
minimum height for door sills before a means of assisting escape is required
is.
a)* 1.83 m
223. 
In
a centrifugal compressor.
a)* the air enters the impeller
axially at the eye and leaves at the periphery
224. 
What
is the purpose of a hydraulic fuse?
a)* to prevent leakage if the
line breaks
225. 
Where
in the airconditioning system is the water separator located?
a)* after the cold air unit
226. 
What
regulates the real load?
a)* the torque from the CSD
227. 
What
fire extimnguisher would be used on a propane fire?
a)* foam
228. 
The
purpose of a refuelling volumetric top off unit (VTO) is.
a)* to close the fuelling valve
when the tank is full
229.  The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo jet
engine produces.
a)* the greatest part of the thrust
230.  What does a diffuser in a gas turbine do?
a)* convert kinetic pressure into
static pressure